Similar scriptures should be compared for consistency to promote accuracy. Matthew 5:32 says "'everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery.'" Does she have to remarry to qualify for that label? The remainder of the verse states "'whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery.'" If their society expected everyone to be married then maybe you could assume that she would remarry.

This should be compared to Luke 16:18 for consistency. It says "'everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries one who is divorced from a husband commits adultery.'" Remarriage seems to be the common theme in the two scriptures. Comparable verses are found in Matthew 19:9 and Mark 10:11-12. In all these verses three people are committing adultery: (1) the divorcing one, (2) the remarrying one, and (3) the one being divorced. Therefore, when exegeting you must adhere to remarriage as a condition for the occurrence of adultery.

But is the timing of the events made clear? For discussion purposes you'd have to assume that someone divorcing his wife would remarry soon afterwards because that would be the reason for it. The marriage would have been consummated before the divorced woman would even have had a chance to remarry. But then the "'immorality'" (Mt 19:9) qualification would activate. Since the exception clause would be in effect you'd expect the divorced woman would be free to remarry. However, hermeneutics requires a straightforward approach where "reading between the lines" is unacceptable. Hypothetical situations are not allowed. Therefore, according to the scriptures, she would commit adultery when remarrying regardless of whether the one who divorced her had already remarried. You say that's unfair? Your reply is that trying to be literal is "stretching a point?" Then you must devise a figurative solution which is hermeneutically satisfactory to counter the literal approach's complications.