The Pharisees questioned "whether it was lawful for a man to divorce a wife" (Mk 10:2). Undoubtedly they had heard Jesus teach about it. You could expect that his answer would be based upon scripture, for in Matthew 4:4 when he was tempted by the devil, his response was "'It is written.'" Additionally his statement on divorce is preceded in Matthew 5:31 by "'It was said'" and introduced by "'but I say to you'" in verse 32. There Jesus is not rewriting scripture but rather reaffirming it. However, is he giving it a more modern spin, or only reemphasizing existing truths which the current society has lost sight of?

Jesus' answer to the Pharisees in Mark 10:11-12 was that adultery would occur. Jesus quotes Genesis as a basis for his answer to the Pharisees' question. It seems that the Pharisees got more than they bargained for. He cited Genesis 1:27 saying "male and female He created them." How would this answer the question of whether a divorce certificate is valid? The answer also requires Genesis 2:24. It says "for this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh." Is this all they needed to know? Why weren't other verses included? Jesus quoted the last part of Genesis 1:27 but the first part which says "God created man in His own image" was left out. Also, Genesis 2:18-23 wasn't quoted either. It seems that they would be integral parts of the explanation. But maybe the essence of the answer is within Jesus' brief quotes themselves. However, proper exegesis demands that the context be considered. Perhaps the parts not quoted are implied and it was not necessary to include them all.